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- not a newbie
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- Joined: Mon Jan 16, 2017 3:12 pm
- Age: 21
- Awesomeness Quotient: I'm very passionate
- Primary language: English
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- Location: California
I was looking at a board comment made by Scarleteen that said pregnancy is NOT at risk if someone has:
"Had any actual or possible contact with pre-ejaculate but NOT during intercourse or direct (where people are naked, with no barriers) genital-to-genital contact."
Would "genital-to-genital" in this situation also be the same thing as intercourse with a condom on?
If, for example, the vulva had come into contact with pre-ejaculate (not during intercourse), but then safe intercourse DID occur after, would this statement still apply?
- scarleteen staff/volunteer
- Posts: 7335
- Joined: Mon Jul 28, 2014 9:06 am
- Age: 30
- Awesomeness Quotient: I raise carnivorous plants
- Primary language: english
- Preferred pronouns: she/her
- Sexual identity and orientation: queer
- Location: Desert
Genital to genital contact can include intercourse, but can also include grinding/humping without any barriers (no clothes, no condom) present.