I have a very confusing situation. My boyfriend and I have been together over a year. We both had partners before each other, but have always used condoms. Since we have been in this relationship for a year, and have both been tested for STIs, and I am on birth control, we have started to use condoms less. We use them when we remember but if its a spur the moment kind of thing, we don't worry about it.
Recently, my boyfriend approached me and said he has an STI (chlamydia) and I should get tested. I was mortified! I had just been tested two weeks before and everything came back negative. His previous testing had also been all negatives. I went back and was re-tested, and again the results came up negative (I was given a prescription just in case).
Neither of us have ever had sex without a condom before now. How is it possible that he suddenly developed an STI when both of us have tested negative before, and haven't been with anyone else? Could it be a misdiagnoses, or is it possible to get an STI another way? For example, having unprotected sex while the girl is on her period? Help!!
Do coldsores mean that you have Herpes? My friend told me that coldsores were a sign of an STI. I had my first coldsore when I was 9 years old and I was definately not sexually active. I haven't had one since but I am afraid that I might be carrying Herpes. I know lots of people who get coldsores on a regular basis and I just don't understand how all these people could have Herpes. I know that it is very contagious. Does having this mean that you can never have sex? Can you clarify for me? Thanks a bunch!
My boyfriend and I have sex often, and when we do we use a condom as often as possible. But when we go to get condoms there are so many to choose from! There are ribbed ones, spermicidal, ones that are specified for "her" pleasure and vice versa, ultra thin..and more. What is the difference in all of these? Do any of them really give more pleasure or feel any better than a plain lubricated condom?
Alright, so me and my boyfriend had sex for the first time yesterday. It was my first time ever having sex, but I was confident about it. We used a condom and he is very safe about it. As well, during sex he does not have an orgasm and will pull out for my comfort of mind. He makes sure there are no holes in them and uses them how he is told. However, I have a few questions.
1) How protective is a condom?
2) As another precaution, I made sure that he ejaculated BEFORE we engaged in sex at all. This we did in the morning at about 8:00AM and had sex at around 3:30PM. What are the chances of pregnancy using this method as well as a condom and pulling out?
3) I am making sure I start going on the pill or the patch, but do not know much about either. Which is more recommended and why?
I know that I seem paranoid taking so many precautions, but I do not want to continue having sex until I have made sure of as many contraceptive ideas as possible.
I have been with my boyfriend 2 years now, we have had anal sex before. I was not aware of the safety factors of it, and we had anal to vaginal sex...alot. I ended up with a horrible UTI and kidney infection. I also had anal herpes outbreak (never had one before.) This was all over a year ago. Anyway, we are trying to introduce anal play back into our sex life.
I am paranoid (as you can imagine) I need your professional advice, and opinions. Do we need to use a condom for anal since we have been together so long, and already figured out that we have herpes? Also...I am paranoid about the infection thing, obviously I'm not even thinking about anal to vaginal sex, but I am still nervous. Please set my mind at ease.
I am uncircumcised and I was wondering, there isn't anyway that if you have intercourse that sperm won't come out while inside of her unless you reach orgasm right? Like if I'm having sex with a girl and I'm not using a condom there's no way that anything could seep out without reaching a orgasm. Just want to make sure, because condoms don't feel the best when having intercourse.