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Author Topic: Debated Question...
beaver987
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I know this topic has been debated but, is it true that precum does not conatin sperm unless there was a previous ejaculation in which the man did not urinate in between?
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Heather
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The way that the penis and testes work, sperm cells are contained in an ejaculation, when that happens.

Pre-ejaculate is a fluid that, from all we can tell, exists in order to flush out anything in the urethra before ejaculation in order to make that environment one where sperm cells are most likely to leave (during ejaculation) unharmed, where things like urine can't mess them up.

What does all that mean? It means that sometimes, what can happen is that trace amounts of sperm cells are left in the urethra from an ejaculation, cells which pre-ejaculate may carry out with it.

However, based on what we -- we being the larger community of educators, researchers, healthworkers that work in this stuff -- can tell, and how we know these structures of the body work, those trace cells aren't going to be left in that tract if it's been a while since a previous ejaculation OR someone has urinated since, which would have carried those trace cells out with it.

But here's what is probably the more important part: unprotected sex presents STI risks. And the kinds of sex that can create a pregnancy, when done without reliable methods of contraception, pose a high risk of pregnancy. Withdrawal as a method is one of the least effective in typical use, so people wishing to best prevent pregnancy and STIs are better off focusing on the ways we know really do that than on trying to figure out when there will or won't be viable sperm cells, a kind of science best left to fertility experts, IMO.

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beaver987
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Thanks for the response. I just wasn't sure if there was/wasn't sperm in precum. A friend and I were discussing it today. I also have two questions from my other thread that didn't get answered...

For there to be viable semen (on somebody's hand, freshly ejaculated) would you have to have enough that it is visible for it to be viable?

Also, I just finished up my first month on the combination birth control pill. The latest i've been with taking it was an hour and a half late. Otherwise I've taken it everyday at 10 (except for the last 2 days I took them at 9 15 and 9 45). If I took my placebo pills and took my first active pill again yesterday at my usual time (10PM), am I fully protected? Am I fully protected even the last day of my placebo week?

Thanks!

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Heather
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Viable isn't really a term I'd use with semen, but with sperm cells, which we can't ever see.

But if you're asking if for semen to have the capacity to create a pregnancy, there'd have to be enough that it's visible, that's tricky too, since the way pregnancy almost always happens, no one sees semen since it's ejaculated inside the body.

If and when semen is on someone's hand, the risks per another person's body are really about infections, not pregnancy. Indirect transfer like that doesn't tend to work for sperm cells, which are pretty darn delicate.

The combination birth control pill is around 99% effective in perfect use and 92% effective in typical use. Since those rates are figured over one year, and the pill isn't something like condoms we only use at the time, what I suggest people using it very well -- as you are -- do is figure they're probably in the middle with around 95% effectiveness in one year. And yes, pills are just as effective during the placebo week as during the active pill weeks so long as each next pack is started on time.

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Heather Corinna, Executive Director & Founder, Scarleteen
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Never doubt that a small group of thoughtful, committed citizens can change the world. Indeed, it is the only thing that ever has. - Margaret Mead

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Robin Lee
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HI beaver987,

(wow, Heather is faster than I am. Will leave this response here anyway). [Smile]

As to your second question, It sounds like you are as near to a perfect pill user as possible. Success rates with perfect pill use are 99%, and for typical use 92%. So, while there is always some risk of pregnancy when we have the kinds of sex that can lead to pregnancy, you're using your chosen method of birth control in such a way as to minimize that risk as much as possible. ...and the birth control pill is one of the most effective forms of contraception out there!

And yes, the pill still protects you even during the placebo week. Here's some information on how that works.

How do birth control pills really work, even during the placebo period?

[ 06-05-2012, 05:29 PM: Message edited by: Robin Lee ]

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Robin

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beaver987
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So if I took the the last two pills at 9 15 and 9 45 (of my active week, right before the placebo week), the time that I normally take the pill at (at 10 pm) on the first day of my active week again would not be considered late? [Smile] Thanks for all of your responses! I've found them very helpful.
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Robin Lee
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No, it wouldn't be considered late. You have a grace period of about three hours. What's most important with taking the pill is that you take it at the same time of day every day, not necessarily that you take it at the same time. ...though many people do find that taking it at the same time is the easiest way for them to remember.

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Robin

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beaver987
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Okay. And yeah, I have an alarm on my phone that goes off everyday, but those two days it was easier for me to take it (without being with anyone) at 9 15 and 9 45. But that's totally fine, as you said?
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Robin Lee
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Yup, totally fine! [Smile]

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Robin

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beaver987
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So basically, you're saying that if I take it at about the same time, but if I take one or two an hour late or early, it won't hurt me, correct?
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Robin Lee
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Correct. I think you'd find this article helpful. It talks in depth about pill timing.

Three questions about taking the birth control pill (and plenty of answers)

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Robin

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beaver987
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Thanks so much! And to be clear, for pregnancy to be caused, there must be genital to genital contact, correct? It couldn't happen by like pre-cum (after the ejaculation) through boxers or like his chest (that could have had ejaculate on it before, but it was wiped off and no longer visible) to touch my vagina area? Correct? The only way for fingering MAYBE to cause pregnancy is if one were to have semen (enough to be visible) and rubbed onto the vulva?

This happened today, and I really don't feel worried (I took my pill on time for the last month and started it on time this month) like other times, but I just wanted to also be sure!

Just wanted to make sure I understand!

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Onionpie
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Yep, that's all correct. Pre-cum doesn't pose a viable risk if there is a layer of clothing between you. Especially when you're already using a reliable method of birth control [Smile]
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beaver987
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Could ejaculate cause a pregnancy risk if he had boxers on? He ejaculated, washed his hands, I washed mine and he was going to finger me (I was naked and he just had his boxers on). I saw just a spot on his boxers and when he kissed me and layed down for a second on top of me, I was nervous that after he ejaculated it could have passed onto my vagina... [Smile] That's all! I'm not too worried, just a tiny bit of me is wondering [Smile]
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Karybu
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No, that would not create a pregnancy risk.

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"Another world is not only possible, she is on her way. On a quiet day, I can hear her breathing." -Arundhati Roy

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