In several places around the site I see the "perfect use" statistic for condoms alone listed at 98%. As I understand, "perfect use" assumes that a condom is used for all genital contact and the condom doesn't break or slip.
So my question is, where does the 2% work in? I can understand wiggle room with things like hormonal methods where the body might metabolize the drug at different rates and so make it less effective for some women. But condoms just seem so concrete: either the sperm gets through or it doesn't.
On rereading this post, I'm not sure I made myself quite clear, but I can't really think how lay everything out more smoothly. My appologies if my question is hazy, just yell and I'll try and restate things.
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