posted
Hi, I have always wondered about this question so I figured this would be the perfect place to ask. So... in a theoretical situation, if a woman has unprotected vaginal intercourse 2 days before her period, and then her period arrives on schedule, is that period an indication that she is not/ will not get pregnant as a result of that act of intercourse? Similarly, if a woman has protected sex 2 days before her period, is it pretty much guaranteed that she won't get pregnant? Thanks, letssea717
Posts: 18 | From: USA | Registered: Aug 2011
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posted
Hi, letssea. A period is the shedding of the uterine lining and the egg. So if she gets her period 2 days after sex, that means the egg (if there was one) would be flushed out.
Any time people engage in an activity that can cause a pregnancy there is a risk of pregnancy occurring, there are no "safe" times in a cycle. Protection can lower the risk, but it is never 100%.
-------------------- ~Kat Scarleteen Volunteer
I never am really satisfied that I understand anything; because, understand it well as I may, my comprehension can only be an infinitesimal fraction of all I want to understand. - Ada Lovelace Posts: 819 | From: Seattle | Registered: Apr 2009
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posted
So you're saying that implantation could occur within a very short time frame... like if she did not get her period 2 days after having sex, it would be safe to assume that she is pregnant?
Posts: 18 | From: USA | Registered: Aug 2011
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posted
Yes it can occur, but you cannot assume anyone is pregnant, just like you cannot assume anyone is not pregnant. Humans are not machines, and periods don't necessarily come at the exact time we are expecting them. The only way to know is to take a pregnancy test, which you can take after a missed period.
-------------------- ~Kat Scarleteen Volunteer
I never am really satisfied that I understand anything; because, understand it well as I may, my comprehension can only be an infinitesimal fraction of all I want to understand. - Ada Lovelace Posts: 819 | From: Seattle | Registered: Apr 2009
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posted
Okay. I think a better way of phrasing this would be (and sorry if I'm being redundant): If a woman has unprotected vaginal intercourse, and then she gets her period 2 days later (on schedule), this would indicate she is not pregnant, right?
Posts: 18 | From: USA | Registered: Aug 2011
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I never am really satisfied that I understand anything; because, understand it well as I may, my comprehension can only be an infinitesimal fraction of all I want to understand. - Ada Lovelace Posts: 819 | From: Seattle | Registered: Apr 2009
| IP: Logged |
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