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» Scarleteen Boards: 2000 - 2014 (Archive) » SCARLETEEN CENTRAL » Sex Basics and Sexual Health » No Precum

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Author Topic: No Precum
Brianna
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Member # 30599

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Is it normal for a boy not to have precum? I've given my boyfriend handjobs with no lubrication, and I've given him blowjobs, and there's never been any precum.

He said it was good that he didn't have precum because it meant something (I forgot what) wasn't leaking. Something like that.

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-Lauren-
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Virtually all men excrete pre-ejaculate; this is healthy sexual function. The amount, however, varies from male to male, just as not all women will produce the same amount of vaginal lubrication all the time, every time.

It's likely just not a large enough amount to be noticeable.

(I'm going to move this to Sex Basics and Sexual Health, okay?)

[ 09-04-2006, 09:58 PM: Message edited by: Miss Lauren ]

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kluekozyte
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This is totally from personal experience and I don't make any claims that this is any sort of universal scientific fact, but I have found that the amount of pre-ejaculate varies a lot depending on the situation and my level of arousal. A lot of the time, there is none. But when I'm with my girlfriend engaging in some sort of foreplay or kissing, there is much more pre-ejaculate. This makes me think that it is, as it seems to be a function of arousal, analogous to self-lubrication in the vagina. Does anyone know if there's any truth to that theory?

quote:
He said it was good that he didn't have precum
I don't think it matters one way or the other. Pre-ejaculation is one of those little sexual things that don't really have much importance in the big picture of our sexuality.
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Caitlain
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Member # 30581

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quote:
Originally posted by kluekozyte:
This is totally from personal experience and I don't make any claims that this is any sort of universal scientific fact, but I have found that the amount of pre-ejaculate varies a lot depending on the situation and my level of arousal. A lot of the time, there is none. But when I'm with my girlfriend engaging in some sort of foreplay or kissing, there is much more pre-ejaculate. This makes me think that it is, as it seems to be a function of arousal, analogous to self-lubrication in the vagina. Does anyone know if there's any truth to that theory?


That seems reasonable, and echos what I have experienced with my BFs.

Every guy produces pre-cum as they move toward ejaculation. One of pre-cum's purposes is to lubricate the urethra so that the semen can travel through it without causing, shall we say, unnecessary pain. Shooting that thick liquid through the urethra without having it lubed up would be somewhat painful. Just because you don't see a sign of it doesn't mean that it isn't there.

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