T O P I C R E V I E W
Member # 95837
posted 05-18-2012 11:52 PM
Hi all, this is my first post, so excuse me if I do anything outside this board's etiquette rules.
So I had a one night stand 8 months ago and stupidly did so without using a condom. It was a friend who I trusted was clean. Obviously I am looking back thinking WTF why did I do that?! and will never make that mistake again. For the past 8 months since then, I have been monogamously sleeping with a different partner. Stupid move number two, I didn't get tested before we started sleeping together, because I didn't feel like anything was wrong so OF COURSE nothing was!!! Yea... Silly me, I know. Lesson learned in that regard, too. My partner informed me that he thinks he has chlamydia (he has been experiencing discomfort during urination and ejaculation, only symptom), and that I am the only person who could have given it to him. He thinks that I must have cheated on him! Obviously I couldn't say for certain that I didn't pass it on to him, given that I wasn't tested after my previous partner/before this one. However, I can say that I definitely haven't been sleeping with anyone else at the same time as him! My question is, if I have chlamydia and have passed it on to him, would it be possible for him to be just starting to show symptoms 8 months later? I know that symptoms typically show up (if they do at all) 1-3 weeks after exposure, but I want to know if there is any likelihood that he contracted it when we started having sex and the symptoms are just now starting to show up for him? Is that probable/possible/at all likely? Ideally, he just has a UTI and everything will be fine. Regardless, we are both getting tested ASAP.
Member # 20094
posted 05-19-2012 06:44 AM
It's not likely (but not impossible, either) that symptoms would just start showing up for him now if he'd contracted chlamydia when you first started having sex eight months ago. But if you did have chlamydia, and passed it on to him, that may not have happened right away: having sex with someone who has an STI doesn't mean we're guaranteed to get that STI, just that it's likely.
Obviously, the only way to know for sure what's going on is for you both to get tested, so it's good to hear you have plans to do that ASAP. It may be that he doesn't have chlamydia, but there's something else going on, but either way, he needs to make getting tested and treated his first priority, and then the two of you can discuss (based on the results of your testing) where this might have started, if that's relevant. (In case you haven't taken this step already, by the way, it's best not to have any kind of sex until you know what's going on and have been treated appropriately.)
Member # 95837
posted 05-19-2012 01:32 PM
Thanks for your response!
I guess in my original post, I assumed that he would have contracted it pretty quickly from me if I had it since we were having sex so often. I didn't consider that he may not have contracted it until later on. I'm really, really hoping that neither of us turns out to have it. If we do, I'm assuming it would be more likely that there is unfaithfulness going on rather than any of these other options... :/ Yea I'm definitely not having any sort of sexual contact until this is all figured out. Going in on Tuesday, hoping for quick results. I'm trying my best not to stress but it's so hard!
Member # 95837
posted 05-26-2012 01:24 AM
Wanted to update on this, in case anyone is searching for a situation similar to their own:
I got my test results back, negative on all panels. Dude went to the doctor and was told he has a UTI. Everything went better than expected.
Member # 3
posted 05-26-2012 10:44 AM
Have you two been able to work through his initial accusations?