T O P I C R E V I E W
Member # 49582
posted 02-11-2011 10:53 AM
In school, we were shown this really backward science video that said that XX people going through puberty tend to prefer older XY partners because they were at the same place in puberty as them. Is there any truth in that?
Member # 3
posted 02-11-2011 11:00 AM
Well, someone being the same age, even when they share the SAME chromosomes, doesn't mean they'll be at the same place in puberty.
In other words, someone can be at a place in puberty at 14 who is XX when someone else is in that place at 19 who is XX. The same thing goes eithe XY people: not everyone is in the same stage at the same age. That said, XY people do tend to develop a little later (not decades, by a couple to a few years, if) in some ways than XY people. While that's certainly not the only way people connect in relationships by a serious long shot, so that video sounds HIGHLY simplistic and fairly inaccurate, sometimes that can be a reason why -- if -- someone had a preference for a slightly older partner.
Member # 43186
posted 04-24-2011 09:07 PM
I have noticed that it seems like girls will frequently get together with boys who are older than they are, but I thought it was more of a social-expectations thing than anything else--evolving, perhaps, from the tradition of marrying 13-year-old girls to decades-older men in the middle ages. Either way, I agree with Heather that the video sounds incredibly simplistic and inaccurate.
Member # 94519
posted 02-07-2012 07:42 PM
In the teenage area, this is typically true, because people with XX chromosomes (females) usually enter sexual (and mental) maturity before those with XY chromosomes (males). So older males tend to be at the mental level of a female 3-5 years younger than them; girls find this attractive, because they can relate to them more so than males their age. BUT, there are exceptions. Not to mention they level out around 21.
I was (and am) in this situation.
Member # 95148
posted 07-23-2012 01:50 AM
I don't know if that is true. I can see the bare biological & reproduction ideas behind the simple statement- biologically, a human woman who has gone through puberty and is at child-bearing age could be attracted to a human man who had also gone through puberty and could properly cause her pregnancy.
But, as we all know, people aren't always driven or attracted to people who would give them a biological reproductive advantage. Sometimes it seems like that doesn't even have an effect at all. For example, a XX being attracted to another XX obviously isn't experiencing that attraction out of a biological need to reproduce. There are many other factors.