T O P I C R E V I E W
Member # 96017
posted 06-13-2012 09:51 PM
I had masturbated around 9:30 pm a few days ago and urinated around 12:00 am which I know would remove most, if not all, of any of the remaining sperm in my urethra. My girlfriend came over around 12:30 and we fooled around a lot, I had excreted lots of pre-ejaculate in my underwear and pants, but it dried. She also gave me oral before we had unprotected sex for about 5 minutes, I did not orgasm.
What I'm asking is would the urination, plus all the pre-ejaculate before actually having sex, have removed all of the old sperm from my urethra? I'm looking for educated answers, guys, so I'd appreciate a response just to confirm what I already think.
Member # 20094
posted 06-14-2012 12:21 AM
If you urinated after ejaculating, then it is very likely that that would have removed most if not all of the sperm from your urethra.
But. When it comes to pregnancy risks, it's really a good idea to assume that pre-ejaculate contains sperm, and act accordingly. So, I would say that there is a possibility of pregnancy here. It's a low risk, and the risk of STIs is a much bigger concern in situations like this, but since we can't know for sure whether pre-ejaculate contains sperm without examining it under a microscope, from a risk point of view direct genital contact will always pose a risk of pregnancy. [ 06-14-2012, 12:22 AM: Message edited by: Karybu ]
Member # 96017
posted 06-14-2012 08:36 PM
Thanks for the answer.
There's no risk of STI's in this situation, it being her first time. Even then, I know the Cowper's Gland doesn't produce any sperm. Just because I can't find this anywhere online: Would the first couple drops of pre-ejaculate have the extent of the residual sperm?
Member # 90293
posted 06-14-2012 10:45 PM
Whether there was sperm and whether it's excreted with the first few drops, or isn't excreted right away isn't really something anyone can know. As Karybu said, because there are so many variables and because of these unknowns direct contact between bare genitals with no contraception involved is considered a pregnancy risk, though with a lower likelihood of pregnancy than if there had been ejaculation. So, while there isn't a high degree of risk, pregnancy risks are something you and your girlfriend need to discuss. ...and if pregnancy is something you two wish to avoid, it's sound to use contraception if you're going to continue to have sexual activity with genital contact.
As far as STIs go, the only way we know if someone (including ourselves) has an STI is if they (or we) are tested and we learn the results. Have you recently been screened for STIs?