Me and my girlfriend had been having sex for about 6 months when she has been on the pill and i always pull out before I come. We both are very careful that she takes it the same time everyday as we would have sex about twice a day before we broke for the summer holidays.Last nite we met up and had sex and I think I may have come inside her but she said she didnt think I did, she was after her week off the pill and only on her second day back on it, if i did come inside her, is there a high risk she could be pregnant? I think it was her 4th or 5th day of the cycle? Is there anyway to that you could estimate a ball park percentage chance of pregnancy? Thanks in Advance...
Posted by September (Member # 25425) on :
When used exactly as directed, the effectiveness rate of the pill is over 99%. And that's regardless of whatever else you're using in terms of protection.
Since it's really hard to take the pill exactly to the letter, she's likely not at 99%, but if she's really good about it, she's likely above the typical use rate of 92%. So, those are the numbers you've got to work with.
So, I'd say that you don't have anything to worry about.
Posted by curoiusboutstuff (Member # 39791) on :
thanks very much happy to hear!!
Posted by Amy A (Member # 40137) on :
What's the difference between typical and perfect use?
I mean I know missing pills or taking them at the wrong time would NOT be perfect use.
But if taken within the same 3 hour window daily, and never missing any, wouldn't that be perfect use? What's really hard about that - am I missing something? Thanks, just curious =)
Posted by -Vero- (Member # 26516) on :
Missing one pill will generally bring you to the typical use rate of effectiveness. If you're taking your pills within the same 3 hour window every day, and have never missed any, then you're as close to perfect use as you can be.
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