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Author Topic: Question about periods and pregnancy
wakaranai
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Member # 100211

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Hi! So I've read over the provided topics about pregnancy risks, and according to those, I don't have one. (I'd touched a slightly wet spot on my boyfriend's pants and then touched myself a bit later.) Still, I tend to worry pretty excessively, which was why I thought I'd ask for a bit of clarification. My period actually came today, but it was only five days after the incident, and so I was wondering whether or not that still serves as an accurate indication that I'm not pregnant. Implantation doesn't occur immediately, right? I know it's unlikely that an egg would be released so soon before my period, but is there still the possibility? Could I have ovulated during that time and still gotten my period because my body doesn't yet know it's pregnant, or do periods cease immediately during pregnancy?
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Robin Lee
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Hi wakaranai and welcome to Scarleteen,

Menstruation and pregnancy are two mutually exclusive processes. So, if your body did release an egg shortly before your period (and you're right, that doesn't usually happen, but it can, so...), and the egg wasn't fertilized, you'd go ahead and get your period, no pregnancy involved. If an egg was already fertilized, you wouldn't ovulate again. In other words, one cannot be pregnant and have the menstrual cycle continue. Believe me, the body knows. [Smile]


Did you see this article?

Where DID I Come From? A Refresher Course in Human Reproduction

If not, take a look. I think it might help make the processes clearer for you.

--------------------
Robin

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wakaranai
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Member # 100211

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So in other words, even if implantation had not yet occurred, getting my period means the egg wasn't fertilized, right? Part of the reason why I asked was the last question on the bottom of this page.
http://www.scarleteen.com/article/advice/what_do_you_want_to_know_about_periods_and_sex

I wasn't entirely sure whether the response meant that periods stop after fertilization, or that it's merely unlikely that a risk would occur given the timing.

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Heather
Executive Director & Founder
Member # 3

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You've got it right with the second part: it's merely unlikely that a risk would occur given the timing.

--------------------
Heather Corinna, Executive Director & Founder, Scarleteen
About Me • Get our book!
Never doubt that a small group of thoughtful, committed citizens can change the world. Indeed, it is the only thing that ever has. - Margaret Mead

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wakaranai
Neophyte
Member # 100211

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Oh, okay. I also seem to remember reading somewhere that, aside from it being unusual to release an egg shortly before the start of one's period, that one's period would make it difficult for implantation to occur, as the lining would have been shed, and there would thus be nowhere for it to attach to.

That being said, I suppose I don't actually have a risk from this anyway, seeing as there was only indirect contact with pre-ejaculate.

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Heather
Executive Director & Founder
Member # 3

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Well, on the whole, most people will only ovulate once in a cycle. And, we will only get periods if and when a) we ovulated earlier in the cycle, and then b) did not become pregnant.

But you're right: indirect contact like this isn't at all likely to pose pregnancy risks in the first place.

--------------------
Heather Corinna, Executive Director & Founder, Scarleteen
About Me • Get our book!
Never doubt that a small group of thoughtful, committed citizens can change the world. Indeed, it is the only thing that ever has. - Margaret Mead

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