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Author Topic: More info about pre-cum?
isabellak
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Hi I was wondering if I could get more info on pre-cum. I was researching about it online and I am very well confused. Some sites say that all pre-cum ALWAYS have some sperm on it. While some say it only contains sperm in the pre-cum if he recently ejaculated. If there is only pre-cum after a guy recently ejaculated, how recent does it have to be? For example, if a guy had a full ejaculation 1 or 2 days a head of time, would the pre-cum still contain sperm if he got aroused? Also, is it true that peeing after ejaculation will kill the pre-cum?
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Heather
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Pre-ejaculate, in and of itself, does NOT contain sperm. It's a fluid meant to clear the urethra of anything hanging around in there before an ejaculation to help sperm be most viable (from all we can tell).

What can happen is that if someone has recent; ejaculated, trace amounts of sperm can remain in the urethra, which pre-ejaculate can then carry with it on the way out. But if someone has urinated since their last ejaculation, the urine has most likely carried that trace sperm out already.

There's nothing to "kill" with pre-ejaculate, so I'm not sure what you're asking.

here's the deal, though: this question is usually only asked if and when someone is having sex unprotected, which isn't smart for anyone who doesn't potentially want a kid or a sexually transmitted infection. So, if you know you don't want either of those things to happen, better to focus on learning how to reduce those risks than one what pre-ejaculate does or doesn't have in it, okay?

Do you need help with either or both of those things?

--------------------
Heather Corinna, Executive Director & Founder, Scarleteen
About Me • Get our book!
Never doubt that a small group of thoughtful, committed citizens can change the world. Indeed, it is the only thing that ever has. - Margaret Mead

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isabellak
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So, there would be no sperm AT ALL?...if a guy urinated some time after his recent ejaculation? Also, how long after a guy gets pre-cum does he have a full ejaculation?

Oh no, I don't need help on either of these things. I am well informed on safe sex since we just learned about safer sex in school. I was just wondering, because I still need more information and wanted to give out the right information to some of my friends and myself. Thank you very much for the help though! [Smile]

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Heather
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It's not at all likely, no.

Pre-ejaculate sometimes happens only once, when someone with a penis first gets erect or aroused, but sometimes happens more than once. How long it can be from when that happens to when a person ejaculates is going to vary because sometimes it'll take someone a half a minute, other times five, other times twenty, and sometimes someone won't ejaculate at all.

But ultimately, if you're passing out info and guidance to friends, the best info to give is that STIs can be transmitted without ejaculate or pre-ejaculate. And pregnancy can still happen sometimes with pre-ejaculate. So, if folks want to prevent those things, they need to be practicing safer sex and using contraception.

--------------------
Heather Corinna, Executive Director & Founder, Scarleteen
About Me • Get our book!
Never doubt that a small group of thoughtful, committed citizens can change the world. Indeed, it is the only thing that ever has. - Margaret Mead

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isabellak
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Oh okay thank you. How are STIs transmitted without ejaculated or pre-ejaculate? can you give some examples of a situations? Also, can you develop any sexually transmitted diseases, if you are in an monogamous relationship and neither of the persons have ever had any sexual relations with anybody else?
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Heather
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Sure.

Some STIs are transmitted by body fluids, like HIV chlamydia. Those kinds of STIs can be transmitted by semen (or pre-ejaculate), vaginal fluids, blood or breast milk.

Other kinds are transmitted by skin-to-skin contact, not by fluids, namely HPV, molluscum and herpes.

Most of the time, most STIs are contracted and transmitted through genital sexual activity (or sexual assault), which is why they're called STIs. But sometimes they are contracted other ways, like through IV drug use, or other nonsexual contact. Oral herpes, for example, is most commonly contracted in childhood through nonsexual contact.

But STIs don't just happen all by themselves: you get one, you have to get it from someone else who has that one.

--------------------
Heather Corinna, Executive Director & Founder, Scarleteen
About Me • Get our book!
Never doubt that a small group of thoughtful, committed citizens can change the world. Indeed, it is the only thing that ever has. - Margaret Mead

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isabellak
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So basically, you can never get an STI unless someone else you had sexual contact with had them? Also, when you say body fluids..does that also mean saliva?
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Heather
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No, not never, because like I explained, STIs are MOSTLY sexually transmitted, not only sexually transmitted.

Saliva is not a body fluid associated with STI transmission.

--------------------
Heather Corinna, Executive Director & Founder, Scarleteen
About Me • Get our book!
Never doubt that a small group of thoughtful, committed citizens can change the world. Indeed, it is the only thing that ever has. - Margaret Mead

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chibearsr#1
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I also have a question on this issue. My boyfriend and I had sex for the first time yesterday. I wasn't smart about it and I regret that fact. He was in for around 3 minutes, pulled out, and did not cum for at least another 5 minutes. There is not chance that he came in me, (he can always tell when he is going to cum, and he took extra precautions), but I know precum is always an issue. He came twice earlier in the day and washed VERY thoroughly. I am pretty sure he went to the bathroom before too. So, I would like to know if I am worrying too much about the potential of being pregnant. I am a good girl. I have never done anything wrong. This would be catastrophic for me. I will never go without protection again. This worry is way too much already and it is just not worth the risk.
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Heather
Executive Director & Founder
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(In the future, chibearsr, in this area of the boards start your own thread, okay? Thanks!)

Withdrawal is estimated to be 96% effective in perfect use and is 72-83% effective in typical use. It sounds like you two used it perfectly, but if you're nor sure if you did, or still aren't comfortable with that percentage of risk, you can go and get/use emergency contraception to reduce your risk.

There may also have been STI risks, particularly since you didn't use a condom, so you'll also want to get tested in the next month or so, okay?

And if you need help setting this limit with your boyfriend, we're happy to help you with how to have that talk, if you like.

--------------------
Heather Corinna, Executive Director & Founder, Scarleteen
About Me • Get our book!
Never doubt that a small group of thoughtful, committed citizens can change the world. Indeed, it is the only thing that ever has. - Margaret Mead

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OWL Dan
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Welcome,

If he did urinate first, then there wouldn’t have been any sperm left when he entered. Otherwise it sounds like you used the withdraw method. I am going to add a couple of articles that you may find helpful.

Emergency Contraception

Birth Control Bingo!

The Buddy System: Effectiveness Rates for Backing Up Your Birth Control With a Second Method


PS:In the future, you will find it better to start your own post, especially in the "Ask Scarleteen" and "Emergencies and Crises" areas.

[ 01-16-2011, 03:23 PM: Message edited by: OWL Dan ]

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Dan

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chibearsr#1
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Thank you both very much. I will do that in the future. And, I have already had that talk with him and our feelings on that subject are mutual. We are not ready to have a child at all, so we will be sure to be completely protected in the future.
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