Hello. I'm new here, and I hope I'm doing this right...
I read your dry sex article, all was great until I reached the end and read this:
"If you were less than fully clothed, or unclothed, but NOT having direct genitals-to-genitals skin contact, did any pre-ejaculatory fluid or semen get on or near the woman's pubic region, on her underwear or pantyhose, or any other minimal garment?"
I was wearing my panties, and my boyfriend kept his boxers on. So according to that article we were both less than fully clothed. We didn't have direct gential skin contact, but we did rub gentials with these two layers in between. My boyfriend didn't ejaculate during this session. However, the reason I did come to that article was because I am concerned with pre-cum being in the picture.
If we were both less than fully clothed (I am assuming that means no jeans/shorts/pants on), does my situation pose a risk?
I was fine reading everything because nothing was fully saturated- so I assumed there was no risk, until I kept reading the article and came upon what I re-quoted above.
Would pre-cum pose a viable risk through two layers of undergartments?
Posts: 4 | From: Egypt | Registered: Aug 2009
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