posted
Hi there. I consider myself pretty well-informed about birth control effectiveness rates, etc. But I've always wondered what the 2% [in perfect use] failure rate of condoms includes? Does this mean that even though a couple uses a condom perfectly, this 2% accounts for the breakage/slippage that is always a risk? I guess I've always wondered if condoms can fail without breakage or slippage, without the users even knowing.
For instance: if a condom is put on correctly, all semen is gathered in the tip, and the condom is taken out of the vagina promptly and correctly...can that particular act of intercourse be considered close to 100% effective against pregnancy?
Posts: 2 | Registered: Apr 2012
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posted
Yes, the 2% failure rate is because sometimes condoms break or slip off. One of the nice things about condoms is when they fail, it is noticeable, so you can then take emergency contraception. If condoms were used for all genital contact and didn't break, then you can be pretty assured it worked and your risk of pregnancy would be very small.
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