Scarleteen

Ok, so let me get this straight. Ive been doing research and from what i gathered, i found that there is no semen in pre-cum and if your partner urinates before or after any recent ejaculation, then you’re fine. However, there are some saying that there is. So my question is, if your partner urinates before or after a recent ejaculation, does that mean that there shouldn’t be any semen in pre-cum at all?

Hi Xainia,

A possible reason why you're finding conflicting information is that it is possible for pre-ejaculate to cause pregnancy, but that outcome is not very likely. There's no way to be sure if a certain instance of pre-ejaculate contains sperm, but what we know is that it is less likely to occur if the person has urinated prior to pre-ejaculation or has not ejaculated at all for some time. You can read more about that here: http://www.scarleteen.com/article/advic ... _pregnancy